Customers_First
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Re:"MD Judge Orders Investor to Pay $510,968..." - 2007/02/14 21:40
Depends...
Depends on who is conducting the Auction.
If the Bank is foreclosing on the property and using an auction to do so, then the answer is no.
However, if the homeowner has been approached by an auctioneer to conduct an auction, or an investor is using an auction to sell, then the law is not so clear.
Again, as Bruce has pointed out in several posts on this topic, right now the #1 target of the State's Attorney's office and vigilant trial attorneys seem to be real estate agents who believe they are exempt simply because they are licensed professionals.
Being a licensed professional is not a license to either be ignorant of the law, or to break the law.
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